Comparative study of Rb1, cyclin D1 and p16 immunohistochemistry expression to distinguish lung small-cell carcinoma and large-cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.

AIMS: Large-cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (LCNEC) and small-cell carcinoma (SCLC) of lung encompass high-grade neuroendocrine tumour category and share several fundamental features. As both tumours may respond to different treatment modalities and show unique molecular alterations distinction between the two is clinically relevant, but can be challenging due to sampling and fixation issues and shared morphological features. METHODS: Surgically resected primary SCLC (n = 129) and LCNEC (n = 27) were immunohistochemically stained with Rb1, cyclin D1 and p16 using tissue microarray (TMA), and expression patterns of the proteins were compared between the two to identify the discriminatory pattern. RESULTS: All markers had high diagnostic accuracy; Rb1 was the highest followed by p16 and cyclin D1. The majority of SCLC had the pattern Rb1-/p16+/cyclin D1- and more than half of LCNEC had Rb1+/p16-/cyclin D1+. Overall, the expression pattern Rb1- and cyclin D1- was strongly associated with the diagnosis of SCLC, while the pattern Rb1+ and/or cyclin D1+ was strongly associated with LCNEC. The use of this simplified expression pattern leads to a diagnostic accuracy of 97.3%. p16 did not add to further discrimination. The heterogeneity in Rb1, cyclin D1 and p16 expression was insignificant in SCLCs compared with LCNECs. CONCLUSIONS: Use of Rb1, cyclin D1 and p16 immunohistochemistry can distinguish the two with high accuracy. Notably, the Rb1-/cyclin D1- pattern in given tumour sample would confirm the diagnosis of SCLC. Our results could be extrapolated and applied to routine diagnostic samples such as biopsies and cytology samples.

Pneumomediastinum following intubation in COVID-19 patients: a case series.

The number of patients requiring tracheal intubation rose dramatically in March and April 2020 with the COVID-19 outbreak. Our thoracic surgery department has seen an increased incidence of severe pneumomediastinum referred for surgical opinion in intubated patients with COVID-19 pneumonitis. Here we present a series of five patients with severe pneumomediastinum requiring decompression therapy over a 7-day period in the current COVID-19 outbreak. We hypothesise that the mechanism for this is the aggressive disease pathophysiology with an increased risk of alveolar damage and tracheobronchial injury, along with the use of larger-bore tracheal tubes and higher ventilation pressures. We present this case series in order to highlight the increased risk of this potentially life-threatening complication among the COVID-19 patient cohort and offer guidance for its management to critical care physicians.

The effect of a novel Bayesian penalised likelihood PET reconstruction algorithm on the assessment of malignancy risk in solitary pulmonary nodules according to the British Thoracic Society guidelines.

PURPOSE: British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines advocate using FDG PET-CT with the Herder model to estimate malignancy risk in solitary pulmonary nodules (SPNs). Qualitative and semi-quantitative assessment of SPN uptake is based upon analysis of Ordered Subset Expected Maximisation (OSEM) PET images. Our aim was to assess the effect of a Bayesian Penalised Likelihood (BPL) PET reconstruction on the assessment of SPN FDG uptake and estimation of malignancy risk (Herder score). METHODS: Subjects with SPNs who underwent FDG PET-CT between 2014-2017, with histological confirmation of malignancy or histological/imaging follow-up confirmation of benignity were included. Two blinded readers independently classified SPN uptake on both OSEM and BPL (BTS score; 1 = none; 2 = ≤ mediastinal blood pool (MBP); 3 = >MBP but ≤ 2x liver; 4 = >2x liver), with resultant calculation of the Herder score (%) for both reconstructions. RESULTS: 97 subjects with 75 (77%) malignant SPNs were included. BPL increased the BTS score in 25 (26%) SPNs; 9 SPNs (7 malignant) increased from BTS score 2 to 3, 16 (13 malignant) from BTS score 3 to 4, with a mean Herder score increase of 18 ±â€¯22%. The mean Herder score for all SPNs with BPL was higher than OSEM (73 ±â€¯29 vs 68 ±â€¯32%, p = 0.001). There was no difference in Herder model diagnostic performance between BPL and OSEM, with similar areas under the curve (0.84 vs 0.83, p = 0.39). CONCLUSION: BPL increases the Herder score in 26% of SPNs compared to OSEM but does not alter the diagnostic performance of the Herder model.

Loco-regional staging of malignant pleural mesothelioma by integrated 18F-FDG PET/MRI.

AIM: To examine the performance of 18F-FDG PET/MRI in the loco-regional staging of malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM). METHODS: Consecutive subjects with MPM undergoing pre-operative staging with 18F-FDG PET/CT who underwent a same day integrated 18F-FDG PET/MRI were prospectively studied. Clinical TNM staging (AJCC 7th edition) was performed separately and in consensus by two readers on the 18F-FDG PET/MRI studies, and compared with staging by 18F-FDG PET/CT, and with final pathological stage, determined by a combination of intra-operative and histological findings. RESULTS: 10 subjects (9 male, mean age 68 years) with biopsy-proven MPM (9 epithelioid tumours, 1 biphasic) were included. One subject underwent neo-adjuvant chemotherapy between imaging and surgery and was excluded from the clinical versus pathological stage analysis. Pathological staging was concordant with staging by 18F-FDG PET/MRI in 67% (n = 6) of subjects, and with 18F-FDG PET/CT staging in 33% (n = 3). Pathological T stage was concordant with 18F-FDG PET/MRI in 78% (n = 7), and with 18F-FDG PET/CT in 33% (n = 3) of subjects. Pathological N stage was concordant with both 18F-FDG PET/MRI and 18F-FDG PET/CT in 78% (n = 7) of cases. No subject had metastatic disease. There was good inter-observer agreement for overall PET/MRI staging (weighted kappa 0.63) with moderate inter-reader agreement for T staging (weighted kappa 0.59). All 6 subjects with prior talc pleurodesis demonstrated mismatch between elevated FDG uptake and restricted diffusion in areas of visible talc deposition. CONCLUSION: Clinical MPM staging by 18F-FDG PET/MRI is feasible, and potentially provides more accurate loco-regional staging than PET/CT, particularly in T staging.

Presenting symptoms of giant fibrovascular polyp of the oesophagus: case report and literature review.

INTRODUCTION: Lipomas of the gastrointestinal tract are rare, slow-growing lesions that comprise 0.4% of all gastrointestinal neoplasms. They can cause dysphagia, dyspnoea or sudden choking. CASE HISTORY: Due to rarity of this condition and its uncommon presentation, a literature review was carried out (PubMed). This search revealed 290 articles, of which 74 were considered pertinent and were evaluated. We report a case of a 13cm pedunculated oesophageal lipoma that presented with increasing dysphagia and two episodes of suffocation. The patient underwent curative resection through a cervical approach. CONCLUSIONS: Resection is recommended for large (>5 cm) or symptomatic polyps. Outcomes are excellent given that lesions are universally benign and oesophageal resection is not required.

Prognostic role of the PET parameter maximum standardized uptake value in non small cell lung cancer: analysis in tumour of diameter ≥ and <25 mm.

AIM: The aim of this study was to evaluate whether the primary tumour maximum standardized uptake value (SUV(max)) plays an independent prognostic role in patients with non small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) and whether this role is limited by partial volume effect (PVE) and motion artefacts. METHODS: One hundred and fifty-three consecutive patients underwent PET exam, surgery (R0 resection) and follow-up (mean 20.3; range 6-44.8 months). Correlation with Disease Free and Overall Survival (DFS, OS) was evaluated in the entire population for: SUV(max), clinical and histopathological features and pathological stage. To evaluate the PVE and motion artefacts' interferences on SUV calculation, the correlation between SUV(max) and DFS/OS was also calculated in the groups of patients with tumour diameter ≥ and < than 25 mm (group A and B, respectively). RESULTS: In the entire population only TNM and SUV(max) resulted correlated with DFS/OS. However, SUV(max) was significantly correlated with DFS/OS in group A but not in group B. Furthermore, only in the group of patients with primary tumour diameter ≥ 25 mm (group A), tumour diameter, tumour histotype, and tumour necrosis resulted significantly related with SUV(max) at both uni and multivariate analysis. CONCLUSION: TNM together with SUV(max) could be useful in giving a better prognostic stratification of patients with NSCLC; however technical limitations in the SUV calculation must be taken into account in patients with tumour diameter <25 mm.

Somatostatin receptor tissue distribution in lung neuroendocrine tumours: a clinicopathologic and immunohistochemical study of 218 'clinically aggressive' cases.

BACKGROUND: The management of pulmonary neuroendocrine tumours (NETs), with special reference to clinically aggressive carcinoids and large-cell neuroendocrine carcinomas (LCNECs), is poorly standardised and data about somatostatin receptor (SSTR) expression or therapeutic guidelines for somatostatin analogue administration are still debated. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A series of 218 lung NETs [24 metastatic typical carcinoids (TCs), 73 atypical carcinoids (ACs), 60 LCNECs and 61 surgically resected small-cell lung carcinomas] were investigated for SSTR types 2A and 3 tissue distribution using immunohistochemistry, in correlation with clinicopathologic parameters, outcome, scintigraphy and treatment. RESULTS: SSTRs were heterogeneously distributed with a significant progressive decrease from low- to high-grade forms. SSTR type 2A was strikingly overexpressed in metastatic TCs as compared with ACs and clinically benign TCs. SSTR tissue immunolocalization correlated with octreotide scintigraphy in 20 of 28 cases. CONCLUSION: The immunohistochemical determination of SSTRs, with special reference to low-grade/intermediate-grade tumours, may assist the clinical approach with somatostatin analogue-based diagnostic and therapeutic procedures in clinically aggressive pulmonary NETs.

[Transmitter dysfunction in patients with schizophrenia. Significance for cognitive functioning and treatment]. / Transmitterforstyrrelser hos skizofrene. Betydning for kognitive funktioner og behandling.

The great diversity of schizophrenic symptoms rules out one simple etiological explanation. However,impairment of information processing, including disruption of sensorimotor gating, is a consistent finding in schizophrenic patients. Dysfunction in sensorimotor gating is believed to be the result of different developmentally or environmentally caused disturbances involving the neural trajectories involved in information processing. Psychopathology and cognition will depend on the primary involvement of distinct parts of these circuits and on secondarily derived time-dependent disturbances of transmitter function. This review is focused on clinical and preclinical evidence for the impact of interactions between glutamatergic, dopaminergic, serotonergic and noradrenergic brain systems on cognitive performance. The hypothetical consequences of transmitter dysfunction for progressive development of impairment in sensorimotor gating are illustrated. Finally, the broad receptor profile of second generation antipsychotics is analysed to explain the clinical improvement in neurocognition that may occur during treatment with such drugs.

Fluvoxamine in the treatment of demented elderly patients: a double-blind, placebo-controlled study.

The efficacy of fluvoxamine on cognitive functioning and behavioral changes was evaluated in a double-blind, placebo-controlled study of 46 elderly demented patients. The patients had a DSM-III diagnosis of primary degenerative dementia or multi-infarct dementia and were aged greater than or equal to 65 years. Twenty-two patients were given 150 mg fluvoxamine per day and 24 received placebo tablets; 14 and 15 patients, respectively, completed 6 weeks of treatment. Within treatments, there were no significant changes in median scores on neuropsychological tests (picture recall and recognition, trail making and finger tapping) or the GBS scale scores (degrees of dementia) or GBS subscale score (clinical profiles, including symptoms common in dementia, motor, emotional and intellectual functioning). Between treatments, the median changes in psychometric test scores did not differ significantly. However, within and between treatments, there were trends favoring fluvoxamine on symptoms common in dementia (confusion, irritability, anxiety, fear-panic, mood level and restlessness). In conclusion, the study does not support the hypothesis that fluvoxamine improves cognitive functioning or behavioral changes in elderly dementia patients.

Moclobemide in depression: a randomized, multicentre trial against isocarboxazide and clomipramine emphasizing atypical depression.

Moclobemide was compared with isocarboxazide and clomipramine in patients with depression. A total of 167 outpatients were allocated to daily treatment with 300 mg moclobemide, 30 mg isocarboxazide or 150 mg clomipramine for 6 weeks. Moclobemide was slightly inferior to clomipramine, whereas isocarboxazide had an intermediate position. There was no interaction between treatment and atypical or nonatypical depression. Anticholinergic symptoms and orthostatic hypotension were most pronounced in the clomipramine group.

[Emergency treatment of alcoholics. Review of the admissions and readmissions to a psychiatric department with regard to the features of the group]. / Akut behandling af alkoholmisbrugere. Gennemgang af indlaeggelser og genindlaeggelser på psykiatrisk afdeling med henblik på gruppekendetegn.

A retrospective investigation revealed 107 patients (29 women and 78 men) with the diagnosis of alcoholism who were admitted to the County Hospital in Vordingborg during a period of six months. Readmissions of these patients during the subsequent two years were registered. The object of the investigation was to characterize these patients as regards the mental and social conditions, as it was our impression that these conditions were of significance in the referral for treatment in the psychiatric department. In addition, we have investigated whether it is possible to point out prognostic factors for the frequency of readmission. 78% of the patients were between 30 and 50 years. Patients in social class 8 were overrepresented. This supports the presumption that admission to a psychiatric department is not based on the abuse per se but rather on the problem complex of abuse, mental and social problems. 2/3 of the patients had previously been treated for alcohol abuse. The frequency of readmission during the subsequent two years was highest for patient aged 30-50 years. In the age group 30-39 years, changes in the social and mental circumstances had occurred and, in the age group 40-49 years, somatic complications on account of the abuse had more frequently developed. No connection could be found between the duration of the first admission in the period of investigation and the frequency of readmission during the subsequent two years. It is concluded that the group of patients aged 30-39 years appears to require social initiative whereas the group of patients aged 40-49 years has a greater need for somatic treatment.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Prolactin responses to thyrotropin-releasing hormone in multi-infarct dementia and senile dementia of the Alzheimer type.

The serum prolactin (PRL) responses to stimulation with thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) (500 micrograms Protirelin) were compared in 14 patients with multi-infarct dementia (MID) and 10 patients with senile dementia of the Alzheimer type (SDAT). Between the MID and the SDAT patients, there were no statistically significant differences in the median serum PRL concentrations, median changes in serum PRL concentrations or median proportional changes in serum PRL concentrations. Further, the serum PRL responses did not correlate with the GBS scale scores (degrees of dementia) or the GBS subscale scores (clinical profiles, including motor functioning, emotional functioning and intellectual functioning). In conclusion, the study does not support the hypothesis that serum PRL responses to TRH stimulation are of diagnostic value in differentiating between MID and SDAT.

Central effects of drugs used in migraine prophylaxis evaluated by visual evoked potentials.

The present study used recordings of visual potentials evoked by pattern reversal (VEPs) to investigate the central effects of three drugs used in migraine prophylaxis: the calcium channel blocker nifedipine, the beta-1-selective blocker metoprolol, and the nonselective beta adrenoreceptor blocker propranolol. The study involved 58 patients with common or classical migraine who were treated in a double-blind randomized study over a period of 7 months, while the effectiveness of prophylactic treatment was recorded in headache diaries that were subjected to time series analysis. VEPs were recorded at the beginning of a 2-month baseline period without treatment, after 4 months of treatment, and at the end of a 3-month washout period. At baseline, migraine patients had significantly higher VEP amplitudes and longer latencies than did a group of 87 healthy control subjects. Patients were separated by statistical analysis into responders and nonresponders to each prophylactic treatment. Nifedipine had no effects on the frequency, intensity, and duration of migraine attacks, nor on amplitude and latency of the VEPs. In contrast, the use of beta blockers resulted in a significant decrease in VEP amplitude, both in responders and nonresponders, whereas VEP latency remained unchanged. VEP amplitudes returned to the initial values at follow-up in the nonresponders, but stayed at lower levels in responders. Beta blockers thus appear to have a significant effect on the increased excitability of the visual system in patients with migraine, although their action is not directly related to their reduction of migraine frequency.

The GBS scale in multi-infarct dementia and senile dementia of Alzheimer type.

The GBS profile was assessed for 39 patients with multi-infarct dementia (MID) and 34 patients with senile dementia of Alzheimer type (SDAT). The MID patients fulfilled the DSM-III criteria for multi-infarct dementia and had a score of 7 points or more on the Hachinski Ischemic Scale (HIS) and a score of 4 points or less on the Gustafson/Nilsson Alzheimer Scale (GNAS). The SDAT patients fulfilled DSM-III criteria for primary degenerative dementia and had a score of 5 points or more on the GNAS and a score of 6 points or less on the HIS. The total GBS score, the GBS subscale and relative subscale scores for intellectual functioning were significantly higher in patients with SDAT as compared with patients with MID. However, these subscale scores were considerably dispersed and nearly totally overlapping between patients with MID and SDAT, which implicates that the discriminative value is minimal. The validity between the GBS versus HIS and between the GBS versus GNAS was divergent, suggesting that the GBS scale has its own unique validity. In conclusion, the study does not support the hypothesis that the GBS profile may be of diagnostic value in clinical differentiation between multi-infarct dementia (MID) and senile dementia of Alzheimer type (SDAT).

Analgesic-induced chronic headache: long-term results of withdrawal therapy.

Headache characteristics are described in 139 patients with chronic daily or almost daily headaches due to regular intake of analgesics and the short- and long-term results of drug withdrawal. Drug-induced headache was described as dull, diffuse, and band-like, and usually started in the early morning. The mean duration of the original headache (migraine or tension headache) was 25 years; regular intake of drugs and chronic daily headache had started 10 and 6 years prior to withdrawal therapy, respectively. Patients took an average of 34.6 tablets or analgesic suppositories or antimigraine drugs per week containing 5.8 different substances. The drugs most often used were caffeine (95%), ergotalkaloids (89%), barbiturates (64%), and spasmolytics, paracetamol, and pyrazolone derivates (45%-46%). A total of 103 patients (68 migraine, 35 tension or combination headache) were available for interviews at a mean time interval of 2.9 years after an inpatient drug withdrawal programme. Chronic headache had disappeared or was reduced by more than 50% in two-thirds of the patients. Positive predictors for successful treatment were migraine as primary headache, chronic headache lasting less than 10 years, and regular intake of ergotamine. Drug intake was significantly reduced and patients used single substances more often. Patients who originally suffered from migraine, superimposed on the daily headache, also experienced a significant improvement in the frequency of the migraines and their intensity. Migraine prophylaxis through beta-blocking agents and calcium channel antagonists was more efficient after drug-withdrawal therapy.

Does prolonged breastfeeding adversely affect a child's nutritional status?

In 202 children who visited a children's hospital in the city of Accra, Ghana, breastfeeding beyond the age of 19 months was found to be associated with malnutrition. The effect of weaning on food intake was then studied in 15 breastfed malnourished children in a rural community. Before weaning (complete cessation of breast-feeding) protein and energy intakes of all the malnourished children were about half those of 5 normal children. 10 of the malnourished children were weaned, and their intakes rose to the levels of the normal children; the 5 who continued breastfeeding maintained their low intakes. These results indicate that prolonged breastfeeding can reduce total food intake and thus predispose to malnutrition. They also suggest that in Ghana and other developing countries the proper weaning age may be about 18 months.

PIP: In 202 children who visited a children's hospital in the city of Accra, Ghana, breastfeeding beyond the age of 19 months was found to be associated with malnutrition. The effect of weaning on food intake was then studied in 15 breastfed malnourished children in a rural community. Before weaning, protein and energy intakes of all the malnourished children were about 1/2 those of 5 normal children. 10 of the malnourished children were weaned, and their intakes rose to the levels of the normal children; the 5 who continued breastfeeding maintained their low intakes. These results indicate that prolonged breastfeeding can reduce total food intake and thus predispose to malnutrition. They also suggest that in Ghana and other developing countries the proper weaning age may be about 18 months. It is suggested that, when breastfed children who are over 12 months old show reluctance to take supplementary foods, they should be weaned completely to enhance their food intake. It is also suggested that, in Ghana, breastfed children who eat well may be weaned at about 18 months without adverse effects on their health. However, in view of the major advantages of long-term breastfeeding, as well as the disadvantages, more work will have to be done to substantiate these observations.